2023年大学生英语竞赛C类真题以及答案.doc

2０２3　Nａtional English Ｃontest for
Cｏlｌｅge　Students

（Ｌevｅｌ C – Preliminarｙ）
（总分:１５0分 时间：120分钟)
Ｐarｔ I liｓteniｎg Coｍｐreｈensioｎ (3０ marｋs)
Sｅcｔion　A (5 mａrｋs)ﻩ
　 　　 　Ｉn ｔｈｉs　sｅctｉon,　you wiｌl hｅar ｆｉｖｅ shoｒt coｎveｒsatioｎｓ.　Ｅach convｅrsation will bｅ ｒｅaｄ　onlｙ once　.Ａfter eacｈ　ｃonｖersaｔｉｏn, tｈere ｗill　be a tｗｅntｙ-ｓecｏnd ｐause.　Duriｎｇ ｔhe pauｓe, ｒead tｈe questｉon and thｅ tｈｒｅｅ cｈoicｅs ｍarkeｄ　A, B aｎd C,　anｄ decｉdｅ ｗhiｃh　ｉs thｅ besｔ answer ．Then mａｒk tｈe　ｃorrｅsponｄiｎｇ leｔｔer oｎ　thｅ　answeｒ sheet wiｔｈ　a　single lｉne tｈｒoｕgｈ ｔhe centre.
1. Whaｔ ｄoes the man ｓaｙ we can　do　to　dｅal wｉtｈ　oｉl cｒisis?
A.　Tｏ maｋe full uｓe of oiｌ. 　 　 　 　 　 　　 　 　 　 　B.　To　use ａs ｌｉｔtle oil aｓ　ｐossｉｂlｅ
C.　To find ａlternａtｉｖe energｙ.
２. Ｗhere does this conｖersatiｏｎ　most pｒobablｙ take plaｃe?
A.　In an inｓurancｅ coｍpanｙ． 　　 　 　 　　 　 　 　 B. In a　ｂａnｋ.
C.　Ｉn a suｐermaｒket.
3. Accｏrdｉng to　ｔhe man, who iｓ　goｉｎg to　take　oveｒ thｅ posｉtiｏn ｔheｙ ａｒe talking abｏｕt?
Ａ. Janice. 　 　 　 　　 　　 　 　 　 　 Ｂ. Somｅoｎe elｓe.
C. Ｍeｒｙl．
4.　What　dｏes the ｗoman say aｂｏuｔ the ｍａn’ｓ rｅｐｏrt　for　the ｍeｅtiｎg?
Ａ． He　has　to get　iｔ　reａdy befoｒｅ tomoｒｒow nｏon.
Ｂ． Ｈe ｈas dｏne　well enoｕｇh.
C. He　has ｅnｏｕgｈ timｅ to prepare iｔ.
5. Hoｗ many　peｏple wｉlｌ be on the　earth　ｂy thｅ　yeaｒ 2023 aｃcorｄｉｎｇ　tｏ　the　profesｓor？
A. Soｍe 5．８ billion．　　　 　 B. Nearｌy　7 billｉon.
Ｃ． Over ８.５ ｂillｉon.
Seｃtiｏｎ　B (1０ marks)
In　thｉs sｅcｔｉｏｎ, ｙｏu will heａr ｔwo lonｇ ｃoｎversaｔioｎs． Eaｃｈ conｖersａtion wilｌ ｂｅ rｅad　only ｏｎｃｅ． At the enｄ　ｏf each convｅrｓatioｎ， therｅ will ｂe a one－minｕtｅ ｐaｕsｅ. Durｉng tｈｅ ｐaｕｓｅ, reaｄ the questionｓ ａnd　the ｔｈrｅe ｃhoices　markｅd A,　Band　C, and decｉｄｅ　whｉch ｉｓ the bｅst　answｅr.　Ｔhen ｍａrk　the coｒresponding lettｅr oｎ the　ａnｓｗeｒ shｅeｔ wｉtｈ a　sｉｎgle　linｅ　ｔｈrｏｕgh the　cｅntrｅ

Cｏｎvｅrsation　One
6. Wｈat’s thｅ maｉn　joｂ of Simon’ｓ　organｉzａtioｎ?
A. Ｔhey senｄ ｏut　radiｏ signａls to comｍunicatｅ ｗiｔh othｅr　planets.
B.　Ｔheｙ looｋ for lｉfe and intelｌigence　on ｏther　planeｔs.
Ｃ. They ｓtudy ｓtａｒｓ　ｔhat ｈave　pｌａｎetｓ ｏｒbiting　ａround　thｅm.
7. Wｈy　does the orｇaｎizatｉｏn search for radiｏ sｉgnａｌs　from space？
Ａ. Their ｐreｓencｅ　may proｖe the existence ｏf alｉｅｎs.
Ｂ． Tｈｅｙ　mａy help scienｔｉsts find ouｔ hoｗ the ｕniverse stａrtｅｄ.
C． Tｈeｙ　cｏｎveｙ　mｅssａges abｏut life on　ｔhｅ eａrtｈ.
8. Does Simon beliｅve ｔhose stｏrｉeｓ ａbｏut aliens vｉsiｔｉng our pｌaneｔ?
A.　Ｎo, hｅ　doesn’t believe them　at　all.
Ｂ． Yes, he　doeｓ ｂeｌieve those stoｒies ｂｅcauｓｅ ｏf his sｔudy．
Ｃ．　Yes, ｈe beｌｉeｖeｓ them alｔhoｕgh ｈe haｓ ｎo evｉdenｃe．
9. Whiｃh of the fｏllｏwing factｏr is coｎsｉdereｄ tｏ　bｅ imｐｏrtant　iｎ　forminｇ lｉfe　acｃｏrding ｔo the passage?
A. Gravｉtｙ. 　 　 　　　 　 　　　 B． Mｉneralｓ. 　 　 　 C. Wａteｒ.
10． Ｗhen did the　“big　bang”　occur?
Ａ. No oｎe　knows. 　　 　 　 Ｂ． １２ billｉon ｙeaｒs　ａgo.　 　 C. 20　ｂillion yeａr ago．

Conveｒsａtｉon 　Two
11. Ｗｈｙ did　Bｏｂ ｍake　the nｅｗs　ｌasｔ　mｏnｔｈ?
Ａ. Because ｈｅ ｃｒiｔiｃized tradｉｔional　ｊobs
B． Becauｓe he　earｎed　a lｏｔ of　ｍｏneｙ.
C. Ｂecaｕse hｅ ｔrｉｅd　new straｔegies iｎ fiｎｄiｎg a　joｂ.
1２. In ｗｈｉｃh way do ｔhｅ　bestselｌers　ｌｉkｅ “Ｔhe　Ｂrand　Called You” and “The Personal Ｂｒａndｉng　Phenomenon” hｅlp peopｌe？
Ａ.　Tｈey adviｓe people to pｒomotｅ themselveｓ ａｓ　brands.
B．　Thｅy ｔeacｈ peｏple how to　bｅ a perfecｔ　parｔner.
C.　Tｈey ｇｉve pｅople tiｐｓ for job　inteｒvｉew.
１３. Whｅn diｄ Bｏb come up wｉtｈ　ｔhe iｄea of ｕsing the ｉnternet tｏ　finｄ ａ jｏb?
A. Ten　yearｓ ago ｗhｅn　ｈe was ａ　colleｇe　student.
B. Ｗhen hｅ beｇan tｏ　do reseａrch betweｅn joｂｓ.
C.　Ａfter he lａunｃhed ｔhｅ cａmpaｉgn “Giｖe Bob ａ Job”.
1４． Wｈat　ｗａs　tｈe purｐose ｏf Bob’ｓ　ｍaｋiｎｇ thｅ viｄeo?
Ａ． Ｔo　fulfｉｌl　ｈis ambitiｏn as　a dｉrector.
B. To sell his　ｐrodｕcts ｌｉke Teddy ｂears ａnd T-ｓhｉｒtｓ．
C． To adverｔise ｈis skills　aｎd ｔaｌｅｎts.
15． How cａn the ｉｎternｅt helｐ Bob　in ｈｉs job　seａrch　ｅxactly?
Ａ. By ｈeｌpｉng hｉｍ makｅ　friｅｎｄs.
B. By passing ｏn ｔｈe video ｈe　mａde.
C.　By　providinｇ job ｉnforｍaｔioｎ ｆor him.

Section C (5 marks)
In　this seｃtion， yｏｕ ｗｉll ｈear　fiｖｅ sｈort news　iｔemｓ. Ａfter each iteｍ，　whiｃh　wｉll　be reａd ｏnly　ｏnce, theｒe will　be a ｐａuse.　Durinｇ ｔhe　pause, rｅad ｔｈe　questioｎ anｄ　ｔhe ｔhree choices　mａｒked　A, B ａnｄ C， ａｎd decide ｗhiｃｈ　is the best　ａnｓｗer. Then mark　ｔhe cｏrreｓponding letter oｎ tｈe anｓwer sheｅｔ wiｔh ａ singｌe ｌine tｈrough ｔｈｅ centｒe．
16. Ｈｏｗ many ｔroops arｅ going to　witｈdrａw fｒｏm Afgｈａniｓｔaｎ　ｂy tｈe eｎd　of next year?
A. 43,０00.　 　 　　　 Ｂ. 10，０00. 　　　 　　　 　　　 　　 　 　　 　　 C. 33，000.　
１7．　What is the finding　of the stｕｄy?
A． Low-cａlｏriｅ ｆoods may lｅad ｔo more　weｉｇht.
B. Hｉgh-caｌorｉe ｆｏodｓ　may ｌｅaｄ to mｏｒe weight.
C. Ｈigh-cａlorｉｅ ｆooｄｓ ｍay leａｄ to　leｓｓ weｉght.
１８． Whaｔ do the ｃoｎfliｃtｉng reｐoｒtｓ　show about　rａdiａｔion?
A. The ｒａdiatｉｏn level　given by Tokｙo Ｅlectriｃ ｉｓ much smallｅr　thａn thaｔ ｇiven by　ｏther ｔeｓｔs．
B.　Thｅ rａdiaｔion leｖeｌ ｇiｖｅn ｂy　othｅr tｅsts iｓ smaller　thaｎ that ｇiven　by Toｋyo　Electrｉc．
Ｃ. The ｒaｄiａｔion level is ｃlose　to　10，000　ｔimes　the noｒmaｌ lｅvｅl．
１9.　Wｈy are　Cariｂbeaｎ　Servｉｃe and　Europe Todａy ｓｈut doｗｎ bｙ ＢBC?
A.　Because of thｅir outdated ｓeｒviceｓ.
Ｂ. Becaｕse ｏf cuts　in　goｖernmeｎt　ｆundinｇ.
C.　Because oｆ ｌaｃｋ oｆ targｅt audienｃe.
20． What’s the cause of demonsｔrationｓ in cｉtiｅs　ａｎd　ｔowns across　Syria?
A. They aｒｅ　callinｇ for more freeｄoｍ．
B.　Workｅｒs ｄeｍaｎd　hｉgｈer ｐay．
C. Ｓome ｔｈiｒty pｅople ｗerｅ killed ｂｙ the　ｐolice.

Sｅｃtion D (1０ mａrｋｓ)
In ｔｈis sｅcｔion, yoｕ　ｗｉll hear a ｓｈort paｓsage. There ａrｅ 1０ ｍissｉｎg　ｗorｄｓ or phrases.　Filｌ in ｔhｅ ｂlanｋs with　ｔｈe exacｔ woｒds　ｏr phraseｓ ｙou ｈeaｒ． The　pasｓagｅ will　be　reａｄ twice． Ｒeｍｅmｂer tｏ wｒｉte thｅ aｎswｅrs　on the aｎsｗｅr sheｅｔ．
Recｏvｅrｙ fｒｏm　jetlａg ｃａn　tａｋｅ as lonｇ ａs ａ day ｆoｒ　eveｒy　time ｚone cｒoｓsed． So iｆ you’re　flｙｉng　eaｓt-weｓt for　yoｕｒ　ｈoｌiday oｒ ｏn　busiｎｅss， it ｉs　likｅlｙ to mｅａn a few daｙs ｏｆ　fｅelinｇ tirｅd ｏr even uｎwell．
Jeｔlag　ｉs the （2１)_____＿＿__＿ oｆ ｔhe ｂody’s natｕral cｙcle and ｓomｅ　factors ｍake　ｉt　worｓe. The arｔificiａl atmospｈeｒｅ　insｉde　a pｌａｎe cａn ａｆfect the　bｏdy　ｉn a nuｍber of　ways anｄ ａdｄ ｔo the effｅcts of jetｌag.
Exercｉsing ｂefｏre　fliｇhts ｈelｐs ｔｏ offｓeｔ ｔhe effeｃts　oｎ　ｔhe bodｙ ｏf　rｅduced　(2２) _________, anｄ ａerobiｃ　exercｉse afteｒwａｒdｓ　helｐs to reoxｙgｅnate it. Drinｋ　ｐleｎty of　wａｔer. Chｉldrｅｎ may nｅed ｍore. Ｄrｉnking　carroｔ juice bｅfore　flyｉng　ｏｖercomｅｓ oxygen ｄefｉcienｃｙ.
Eａｔ　light, freqｕent　mｅａls. Hｅａvy meals (23)　__＿_______ ｔhe blood cirｃulation, whｉch caｎ　leaｄ to dizziness　aｎd fainｔｉｎg.　For ｔｗo　wｅｅks bｅｆore you fly, ｅaｔ pｌeｎｔy of food　containing vｉtamins A　and E;　tｈey will build　uｐ ｙouｒ (24) _＿＿＿______ ａnd ｈelp　to keep yoｕ fit. Sｌｅep as much ａs you cａn　beｆoｒe tｈe fligｈt　and on　it. Ｏn board, weaｒ eａｒplugs aｎｄ eye ｐａdｓ becauｓe darｋness　(２５) ___＿___＿＿_　secretion　of thｅ　hormoｎes tｈat eｎhanｃe　ｓleep．
Avｏid alcｏhol,　which ｒestricts thｅ brａin’s oxygｅn　iｎｔａｋｅ. Likｅ tea　aｎd coffee, alcohｏl iｎｃｒeases　the dehydrａtion　effect　ｏf flyiｎg． If you neｅｄ tｏ drinｋ ｔo relax, （26) _＿__＿＿_＿__ thaｔ　the caｂin　environment iｎtｅｎsifies thｅ eｆfｅｃt of alcohol.
Ｗｅar ｌｏosｅ， cｏmｆorｔａble, ｗarm ｃｌoｔhes anｄ　ｌimｂｅr uｐ　durｉnｇ flｉｇht. Sittｉng　dｏwｎ for severaｌ　ｈours ｓlows down　ｔhｅ (27)　_＿＿＿＿__＿_， leａdｉｎg to loｃal stiffｎeｓs, ｃｒamｐs and dizziness．　Ｒe-adｊust　to local timｅ as soｏｎ ａs yoｕ caｎ. Bｒight　liｇｈt helｐs　tｈｅ　ｂodｙ sｔay alert, so if you are gｏing　sｏmewhere suｎｎy, sｔay　ouｔｓide.
Ｄｏ not sｍoｋe befｏre ｏr durｉｎg the flighｔ　since ｓmoｋing (2８) ＿___＿＿_____ the ｂloｏd　oxｙgｅn　ｌｅｖeｌ． If　ｙｏｕ ｎeｅｄ ｔo　cａｌｍ　ｙour nｅrｖes， trｙ aromatherapy ｏiｌs which ｈavｅ a sedａtivｅ effect. 　　 　 　(2９)　_＿_______ your dｏｃtｏr before　flyiｎg if　you　aｒe ｏn　mｅdicatiｏｎ. Tｈe ｅffects of soｍe drｕgs ａre　sｔｒenｇｔhｅｎed ａｔ hｉgh aｌｔitudes　ａnｄ　some may pｒｏduｃe （3０)　_＿_____＿＿.

Ｐart ＩI Vocabularｙ aｎd Strｕctｕre (1５　ｍarｋs)
Ｔhere are 15　ｉncomｐlete sentｅnces iｎ ｔhｉs sｅctｉon. Foｒ each　blaｎk　ｔhere are four choiｃeｓ　marｋeｄ A,　Ｂ,　Ｃ and D. Choose the oｎe tｈat best cｏmpｌetes thｅ　sentence. Ｔheｎ maｒk the ｃorｒeｓpondｉｎg letteｒ ｏn thｅ　anｓｗeｒ shｅet with a　sｉngle line througｈ tｈe centｒe.
31． What　we　ａll ｗoｒk ｆor is to frｅe　___＿___＿　timｅ foｒ　the things we　rｅalｌy waｎｔ　to　ｄo.
A. ｏff 　　　 　　 　 　　 　 　B. uｐ 　　　 　 　 　 　　 　 C. aｓide 　　　 　 　 　 D. in
32. You　_________　his wｏrds seriouｓly.　Hｅ　ｗas　tａlkinｇ　nonsense.
A. woｎ’t take 　 　 　 　 　 　 　 　　 　　 　 　 　　 　 　 　 B. may ｎot tａke
Ｃ. ｍuｓｔn’t have takｅｎ 　　 　 　 　　 　 　　 　 　 　 　D． ｎeedn’t havｅ takeｎ
３３. Never hesitatｅ to ______＿＿_ ｔhe　ｆｉrsｔ oｐportuniｔｙ tｈａt ｃomes along.
A.　ｓｅizｅ 　 　 　 B. dｒaw 　 　 　 　 C. ｗho;　tｈaｔ　 　Ｄ. obtａｉn
34． Hｉｓ mｏｔｈｅr _＿____＿＿ hａted city life lｏnged to retuｒｎ tｏ　thｅ　villagｅ　in __＿_＿__ｓhe grew ｕp.
Ａ. that; wｈere 　 　 B.　wｈo;　ｗhicｈ 　 　　Ｃ.　who; thａt 　 　　 　 Ｄ.　ｗho; wｈere
35. Aｌl tｈingｓ _______, I ｔhｉnk Ｉ’d better ｔａｋe youｒ ａdviｃe．
A. coｎsidｅring 　　 　 　B. tｏ　be coｎsidered 　 　 Ｃ. cｏnｓideｒeｄ 　 　 　 D. have bｅen consｉｄｅｒed
3６. Tｗｅｌve　Europｅan countrｉｅｓ __＿＿_＿＿_ ｏvｅｒ to　ｔhe Eｕrｏ on　Janｕaｒy 1sｔ,　２0２３.
A． tｒaｎsformed 　　 　 B． switcheｄ 　 　 　 　 　 　 　Ｃ. reveｒｓｅd　　 　　 Ｄ. alteｒed
3７. Shｅ isｎ’t　anythｉnｇ ________ unｐｌeasant　as peｏplｅ sａy sｈe　is.
A. as ｌikｅ 　　 　 　 　 　　 Ｂ． ｌiｋe　　 　　 　　　　 　 　 Ｃ.　aｓ 　 　 　 　 　 　D. likｅ　as
38. Stｏp coｍpｌａininｇ. Yｏｕ　reaｌｌy ____＿__＿ my　nervｅs.
A． gｅt dｏwn　 　　 　 　 　 Ｂ． ｇet ａloｎｇ　 　　　　 　 　　 　C．　get off 　　 　 　 D. ｇet ｏｎ
3９. There wasｎ’t　_＿＿＿_＿＿ ｔｒuｔh ｉn wｈaｔ　hｅ saiｄ.
A. a　ｇraiｎ of 　 　 　　 　　 　B. a ray of 　　 　 　 　　 Ｃ.　ａ　poinｔ ｏf 　 　 　 D． a drop　ｏf
40． _＿＿____＿ foｒ my savingｓ, Ｉ　wouldn’ｔ ｂｅ ablｅ to survｉvｅ ｔｈｅse　misｅrabｌe　dayｓ.
A． Ｗas it noｔ 　 　 　 　　 　 　 　 　 　 　 　 　 B. Were iｔ not
C. Ｈad iｔ bｅｅn　nｏt 　 　 　 　 　 　 　 　　 　 　 　 D.　Hａdｎ’t it　been
41. Tｈerｅ was　ａ　poｗeｒ　ｃｕｔ ｔｈis　mｏrｎing. __＿＿____, I　couldn’t ｄo anｙｔhinｇ witｈ ｍy comｐｕter.
A. Suｐpｏsedlｙ 　 　 B. Prｅsｕmablｙ　 　 C. Cｏnseｑｕently 　 D．　Esｓentially
4２． Alａrｍ cｌocks nｅedｌｅｓsly　waｋe　＿__＿__ households. I ｗaｎｔ tｏ design　ｓｏmeｔhinｇ tａrｇｅtｅｄ at ｔｈｅ individuaｌ ｓlｅeper.
A. whole 　　 　 　　 B． toｔal 　 　 　 　 C.　full　 　 　 　 　 D. higｈ
４3. ＿_＿_＿_＿ ｂoth parｔｉes agree oｎ tｈesｅ issueｓ wｉlｌ　a ｃｏnｔracｔ be siｇned　ｓoon．
A. If ｏnly 　 　 　B. Unleｓs 　 　　 　 　 　Ｃ． Shoｕｌd 　 　 　 D. Only　if
44．—I’ve rｕn ouｔ ｏf ｃash． Could yｏu ｌend me a few　pounds ｔhｉs evｅning?
—_____ I’ｌl　jｕst　ｈave ｔｏ　find ｔime to get ｔo　ｔhe bank ａｎd　mａkｅ a　wｉｔhｄｒawａl.
A．I can ｌeｎd you some　nｏw.
B. I’m not sure I’ve　ｇot any　eｉtｈer.
C． Sｏｒry, I　haveｎ’t goｔ　ａ　pｅnｎｙ in ｍｙ account．
D. Mｙ ｃredｉt carｄ muｓt ｂe　leｆt ｈoｍｅ.
4５． —We’re aｌl goｉｎｇ to　thｅ New Skyline Reｓtａｕraｎt foｒ our　ｅｎd-ｏf-yｅaｒ　get－togeｔｈeｒ. Ｃaｎ we cｏunt yoｕ ｉｎ?
　 —Oh, tｈanks,　Sａra, ｂut ＿____　
　 　 A. Ｉ didn’t fｉｎd yｏu then. 　 　 　 　 　 　 B． I’ｖe bｅeｎ ｔｏ　the　ｒesｔauranｔ oｎce.
　C. Ｉ’ll　pass this ｔime. 　 　　　 　　 Ｄ. Ｉ’ll ｍeet you ｔhｅｒｅ ａt 5：０0.
Paｒt IIＩ Ｃloze　（10 marｋs）
Ｒｅaｄ ｔｈe　ｆolｌｏｗing　passage ａnｄ fｉｌｌ ｉｎ　eａｃh bｌａnｋ wｉth　onｅ word. Choｏse ｔhe cｏrrect ｗord in onｅ ｏf ｔhe folloｗing thｒee ｗａyｓ： accoｒｄing ｔo　ｔhｅ ｃoｎtext, by　uｓing the　cｏrｒect forｍ of the ｇivｅn　ｗord, or by uｓｉng thｅ gｉven ｌｅtters oｆ　the wｏrｄ． Remeｍbeｒ to ｗrｉte the answｅrｓ　on ｔhｅ answer　shｅet.
Did　ｙou　ｋnow thａｔ ｆoｒ　everｙ 20,000 novelｓ wriｔｔｅn， oｎｌy　oｎe geｔs publｉshed？ Sｏ　ｔｈｅ （46) ＿_＿_ （likely) thａt I’ｌl ever　fulfilｌ ｍｙ aｍbｉtioｎ　oｆ becoming a proｆessioｎaｌ mysteｒｙ　wrｉtｅr doesｎ’ｔ seeｍ vｅｒｙ hｉｇh. But ｔhe　ｐrｏspect oｆ tｕrning my　lｉfeｌｏnｇ passion into my　liveｌihooｄ ａnd　aｃｈievｉｎg fame　and (４7）　fｏｒ _＿____ at the saｍe tｉme ｉs just　too eｘｃiting fｏr me ｔo be　ｐut oｆｆ ｂy　dull statｉｓｔics.
Sｏ　wｈａｔ　doｅs ｉｔ (4８) t_＿_____ to become　a　writer？ Rｅａding ｉｓ imｐｏrtant—ａll ｗriｔｅrs need　tｏ　research ｔheir ｇｅnrｅ tｈoroughly to　ｆamiliaｒiｚe　themseｌves (4９)　＿____＿＿ itｓ　cｏｄｅs aｎd ｃｏnventioｎs. Ｍy boｏksｈeｌves at home　ａｒe stａckeｄ wｉth ｔｈｅ ｎovｅｌs of　ａll tｈe grｅat　mｙｓtｅｒy writeｒs, wｈｉch　Ｉ’vｅ ｒead and in　many ｃaseｓ, ｒｅ-read， ｄespｉte (５0）　_______ (know) aｌl　the tiｍe “who’d　donｅ it”．
Ｏｆ cｏurｓe， bｅｉｎg　a ｗｒiter ｒequirｅs imagｉnａｔion.　You hａve ｔo ｄeｖelop yｏuｒ　ｏwn pｅｒｓonａl sｔyle　rａther tｈan simply　coｐy　the work oｆ “the greaｔs”． I’ve　tuｒneｄ　ouｔ (５１） ｄ__＿_____ of ｓhort　crｉｍe stｏrｉeｓ foｒ ｍy uｎivｅrsiｔy stuｄｅnt　magazinｅ—some　haｖｅ been　ｐuｂｌｉsｈed, soｍe not, ｂut　Ｉ’ve　always aimeｄ tｏ ｐrｏｄuce oriｇｉnaｌ　ａnｄ imaginatiｖe mａteｒiａl.
Lａst but not （５2)　__＿__＿__, ｓucｃessful ｗriteｒs pｏssess ｅnoｒmous ｓeｌf-ｄisciｐline. I’ｖｅ often　sacrificed ｍy soｃｉａl lｉｆe in ordeｒ tｏ deｖote tｈe neｃeｓsaｒy ｔiｍe aｎd　efｆort to　prｏdｕcing　a good qｕaｌｉtｙ story. Aｎd　more tｈan oｎcｅ tｈat hａs　meant (5３)　_＿____＿ thｅ miｄｎｉght ｏil.
We’vｅ ｇoｔ a novel insidｅ uｓ. Gｅttｉng it out　in anｙwhｅｒe　neaｒ publisｈabｌe forｍ is no　(54) _＿＿_＿＿　tasｋ, but with imａｇｉnａｔion anｄ ｄetｅｒminaｔion, and the hｅｌp oｆ an expert　on “ｍaster　clasｓ”， who ｃoｕlｄ possiblｙ fail to　(５5)　re_______ thｅiｒ　amｂiｔion?
Ｐart IV Reaｄing　Coｍprehensｉon (４０ maｒkｓ)
Reａd thｅ following paｓsagｅs. Each passagｅ is ｆolloｗeｄ　by seｖeral quｅsｔioｎs. Ｒｅspond tｏ ｔhe quesｔiｏns ｕsing ｉnformａtｉon from the ｐａssage. Rｅmｅmber to writｅ the　answers on tｈe anｓweｒ shｅｅt.
Sectｉｏn Ａ （10 ｍarkｓ)
Queｓtiｏｎs　5６—６0 ａre ｂaseｄ　oｎ thｅ ｆolｌowing ｐaｓsagｅ.
Thｅ teｒｍ ｃulture shoｃk was　ｉntroｄuｃeｄ　fｏｒ　thｅ first　time in 1958 tｏ describｅ　the anxietｙ　ｐｒodｕｃed wｈen a perｓon　movｅs tｏ ａ compleｔely　new enｖironmｅnt.　Thｉs　teｒm expresses　the　ｆｅeling　of ｎot knoｗｉng whａt　ｔo　dｏ　oｒ how tｏ ｄo things　in　a neｗ envｉｒoｎmeｎt. Ｔｈis　tｅrm exｐresｓes ｔhe　feeling　oｆ　noｔ kｎｏwｉng whａt to do or how　to do ｔhings　iｎ　a new eｎvirｏnmeｎt．　We can descrｉbe culｔuｒe shoｃk　as tｈｅ　pｈyｓｉcal and emoｔioｎａl ｄiscomfｏrt a perｓｏｎ ｓuffers ｗhen ｃoｍiｎg　ｔｏ　lｉve　ｉn a place ｄiｆferent from ｔhe pｌａce oｆ oriｇin.
Ofｔeｎ，　thｅ　wａy tｈａt wｅ ｌiｖe befoｒe　ｉｓ　not　aｃｃepteｄ or ｃｏnsｉdered　as　normal in the neｗ　placｅ． Eｖeｒything　ｉs differenｔ, fｏr ｅｘａmple， nｏt ｓpeaｋing the ｌanguage, ｎoｔ knowing　hｏｗ　to　uｓｅ bａnking machiｎes, not ｋnowing　how ｔo　uｓｅ teｌｅphones， aｎd so　fortｈ.
Thｅ symptoms　ｏf ｃｕltｕrｅ sｈock can ａppｅａr　at　dｉffｅｒｅnt times. Ａlthough a perｓｏｎ can ｅxperiencｅ rｅａl ｐaiｎ　from culture shoｃｋ, ｉｔ ｉs alｓｏ an　ｏｐｐortuｎiｔy　ｆor ｇroｗｉng　and　ｌｅａｒning new pｅｒsｐectｉves.　Culturｅ shｏcｋ ｃan help peoｐle dｅvｅlop ａ beｔｔer ｕｎdeｒstaｎding of themｓelveｓ and sｔｉmulａte personal　creａｔivity．
Culｔｕre shocｋ hａs many stagｅs. Each stage ｃan　be ｏngｏing, ｏr ａppear oｎly ａt certａin　times. In thｅ first stage, the neｗ arｒiｖal maｙ　feel very hａppy abouｔ all oｆ tｈe　new expｅrieｎce. Thｉs　timｅ　ｉｓ caｌled tｈe hoｎeymoｏn ｓtagｅ. Aｆｔeｒward, ｔhe　seｃoｎd sｔａｇｅ pｒesentｓ iｔｓelf.　Ａ pｅrｓon may eｎｃounter soｍe ｄifｆicｕltｉeｓ　in daiｌｙ ｌｉfe.　Ｆor exａｍplｅ, ｃommunｉcation ｄiｆficultiｅs　mａｙ ｏｃcuｒ, such　as not ｂeｉng undｅｒstood.　In thｉs ｓｔage,　thｅrｅ ｍaｙ be ｆeelings　oｆ　impatiｅnce,　angeｒ and　sadnesｓ. Tｒａnｓition beｔween ｔhe　olｄ　mｅtｈods and those of the ｎew coｕntry　ｉs a ｄifｆicult procesｓ　ａnd takes　ｔiｍｅ to completｅ. The thｉrd stage iｓ chaｒactｅrized by gaｉｎinｇ　some　uｎdｅrstaｎdｉng oｆ　the new ｃulｔure. A　nｅｗ ｆeelｉng ｏf　pｌeasure and ｓensｅ of　hｕmor may　be eｘpeｒiｅnced.　A　perｓ