2023年老托福阅读真题1月.doc
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2023年1月TOEFL试题 Section Three: Reading Comprehension Questions 1-10 As Philadelphia grew from a small town into a city in the first half of the eighteenth century, it became an increasingly important marketing center for a vast and growing agricultural hinterland. Market days saw the crowded city even more crowded, as fanners from within a radius of 24 or more kilometers brought their sheep, cows, pigs, vegetables, cider, and other products for direct sale to the townspeople. The High Street Market was continuously enlarged throughout the period until 1736, when it reached from Front Street to Third. By 1745 New Market was opened on Second Street between Pine and Cedar. The next year the Callowhill Market began operation. Along with market days, the institution of twice-yearly fairs persisted in Philadelphia even after similar trading days had been discontinued in other colonial cities. The fairs provided a means of bringing handmade goods from outlying places to would-be buyers in the city. Linens and stockings from Germantown, for example, were popular items. Auctions were another popular form of occasional trade. Because of the competition, retail merchants opposed these as well as the fairs. Although governmental attempts to eradicate fairs and auctions were less than successful, the ordinary course of economic development was on the merchants' side, as increasing business specialization became the order of the day. Export merchants became differentiated from their importing counterparts, and specialty shops began to appear in addition to general stores selling a variety of goods. One of the reasons Philadelphia's merchants generally prospered was because the surrounding area was undergoing tremendous economic and demographic growth. They did their business, after all, in the capital city of the province. Not only did they cater to the governor and his circle, but citizens from all over the colony came to the capital for legislative sessions of the assembly and council and the meetings of the courts of justice. 1. What does the passage mainly discuss? (A) Philadelphia's agriculture importance (B) Philadelphia's development as a marketing center (C) The sale of imported goods in Philadelphia (D) The administration of the city of Philadelphia 2. It can be inferred from the passage that new markets opened in Philadelphia because (A) they provided more modem facilities than older markets (B) the High Street Market was forced to close (C) existing markets were unable to serve the growing population (D) farmers wanted markets that were closer to the farms. 3. The word "hinterland " in line 3 is closest in meaning to (A) tradition (B) association (C) produce (D) region 4. The word "it" in line 6 refers to (A) the crowded city (B) a radius (C) the High Street Market (D) the period 5. The word "persisted" in line 9 is closest in meaning to (A) returned (B) started (C) declined (D) continued 6. According to the passage, fairs in Philadelphia were held (A) on the same day as market says (B) as often as possible (C) a couple of times a year (D) whenever the government allowed it 7. It can be inferred that the author mentions "Linens and stockings" in line 12 to show that they were items that (A) retail merchants were not willing to sell (B) were not available in the stores in Philadelphia (C) were more popular in Germantown man in Philadelphia (D) could easily be transported 8. The word "eradicate" in line 16 is closest in meaning to (A) eliminate (B) exploit (C) organize (D) operate 9. What does the author mean by stating in line 17 that "economic development was on the merchants' side "? (A) Merchants had a strong impact on economic expansion. (B) Economic forces allowed merchants to prosper. (C) Merchants had to work together to achieve economic independence (D) Specialty shops near large markets were more likely to be economically successful. 10. The word "undergoing" in line 22 is closest in meaning to (A) requesting (B) experiencing (C) repeating (D) including Questions 11-22 Avicolturists, people who raise birds for commercial sale, have not yet learned how to simulate the natural incubation of parrot eggs in the wild. They continue to look for better ways to increase egg production and to improve chick survival rates. When parrots incubate their eggs in the wild, the temperature and humidity of the nest are controlled naturally. Heat is transferred from the bird's skin to the top portion of the eggshell, leaving the sides and bottom of the egg at a cooler temperature. This temperature gradient may be vital to successful hatching. Nest construction can contribute to this temperature gradient Nests of loosely arranged sticks, rocks, or dirt are cooler in temperature at the bottom where the egg contacts the nesting material. Such nests also act as humidity regulators by allowing rain to drain into the bottom sections of the nest so that the eggs are not in direct contact with the water. As the water that collects in the bottom of the nest evaporates, the water vapor rises and is heated by the incubating bird, which adds significant humidity to the incubation environment In artificial incubation programs, aviculturists remove eggs from the nests of parrots and incubate them under laboratory conditions. Most commercial incubators heat the eggs fairly evenly from top to bottom, thus ignoring the bird's method of natural incubation, and perhaps reducing the viability and survivability of the hatching chicks. When incubators are not used, aviculturists sometimes suspend wooden boxes outdoors to use as nests in which to place eggs. In areas where weather can become cold after eggs are laid, it is very important to maintain a deep foundation of nesting material to act as insulator against the cold bottom of the box. If eggs rest against the wooden bottom in extremely cold weather conditions, they can become chilled to a point where the embryo can no longer survive. Similarly, these boxes should be protected from direct sunlight to avoid high temperatures that are also fatal to the growing embryo. Nesting material should be added in sufficient amounts to avoid both extreme temperature situations mentioned above and assure that the eggs have a soft, secure place to rest. 11. What is the main idea of the passage? (A) Nesting material varies according to the parrots' environment. (B) Humidity is an important factor in incubating parrots' eggs. (C) Aviculturists have constructed the ideal nest box for parrots. (D) Wild parrots' nests provide information useful for artificial incubation. 12. The word "They" in line 2 refers to (A) aviculturists (B)birds (C)eggs (D) rates 13. According to paragraph 2, when the temperature of the sides and bottom of the egg are cooler than the top, then (A) there may be a good chance for successful incubation (B) the embryo will not develop normally (C) the incubating parent moves the egg to a new position. (D) the incubation process is slowed down 14. According to paragraph 2, sticks, rocks, or dirt are used to (A) soften the bottom of the nest for the newly hatched chick (B) hold the nest together (C) help lower the temperature at the bottom of the nest (D) make the nest bigger 15. According to paragraph 2, the construction of the nest allows water to (A) provide a beneficial source of humidity in the nest (B) loosen the materials at the bottom of the nest (C) keep the nest in a clean condition (D) touch the bottom of the eggs 16. All of the following are part of a parrot's incubation method EXCEPT (A) heating the water vapor as it rises from the bottom of the nest (B) arranging nesting material at the bottom of the nest (C) transferring heat from the parent to the top of the eggshell (D) maintaining a constant temperature on the eggshell 17. The word "suspend" in line 19 is closest in meaning to (A) build (B) paint (C)hang (D) move 18. The word "fatal" in line 25 is closest in meaning to (A) close (B) deadly (C) natural (D) hot 19. The word "secure" in line 27 is closest in meaning to (A) fiesh (B)diy (C)safe (D)warm 20. According to paragraph 3, a deep foundation of nesting material provides (A) a constant source of humidity (B) a strong nest box (C) more room for newly hatched chicks (D) protection against cold weather 21. Which of the following is a problem with commercial incubators? (A) They lack the natural temperature changes of the outdoors. (B) They are unable to heat the eggs evenly (C) They do not transfer heat to the egg in the same way the parent bird does. (D) They are expensive to operate. 22. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage? (A) Aviculturists (line I) (B) Gradient (line 8) (C) Incubation (line 15) (D) Embryo (line 24) Questions 23-33 The mineral particles found in soil range in size from microscopic clay particles to large boulders. The most abundant particles—sand, silt, and clay—are the focus of examination in studies of soil texture. Texture is the term used to describe the composite sizes of particles in a soil sample, typically several representative handfuls. To measure soil texture, the sand, silt, and clay particles are sorted out by size and weight. The weights of each size are then expressed as a percentage of the sample weight. In the field, soil texture can be estimated by extracting a handful of sod and squeezing the damp soil into three basic shapes; (1) cast, a lump formed by squeezing a sample in a clenched fist; (2) thread, a pencil shape formed by rolling soil between the palms; and (3) ribbon, a flatfish shape formed by squeezing a small sample between the thumb and index finger. The behavioral characteristics of the soil when molded into each of these shapes, if they can be formed at all, provides the basis for a general textural classification. The behavior of the soil in the hand test is determined by the amount of clay in the sample. Clay particles are highly cohesive, and when dampened, behave as a plastic. Therefore the higher the clay content in a sample, the more refined and durable the shapes into which it can be molded. Another method of determining soil texture involves the use of devices called sediment sieves, screens built with a specified mesh size. When the soil is filtered through a group of sieves, each with a different mesh size, the particles become grouped in corresponding size categories. Each category can be weighed to make a textural determination. Although sieves work well for silt, sand, and larger particles, they are not appropriate for clay particles. Clay is far too small to sieve accurately; therefore, in soils with a high proportion of clay, the fine particles are measured on the basis of their settling velocity when suspended in water .Since clays settle so slowly, they are easily segregated from sand and silt. The water can be drawn off and evaporated, leaving a residue of clay, which can be weighed. 23. What does the passage mainly discuss? (A) Characteristics of high quality soil (B) Particles typically found in most soils (C) How a high clay content affects the texture of soil (D) Ways to determine the texture of soil 24. The author mentions "several representative handrals" in line 4 in order to show (A) the range of soil samples (B) the process by which soil is weighed (C) the requirements for an adequate soil sample (D) how small soil particles are 25. The phrase "sorted out" in line 5 is closest in meaning to (A) mixed (B) replaced (C) carried (D) separated 26. It can be inferred mat the names of the three basic shapes mentioned in paragraph 2 reflect (A) the way the soil is extracted (B) the results of squeezing the soil (C) the need to check more than one handful (D) the difficulty of forming different shapes 27. The word "dampened" in line 15 is closest in meaning to (A) damaged (B) stretched (C) moistened (D) examined 28. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about a soil sample with little or no clay in it? (A) It is not very heavy. (B) It may not hold its shape when molded. (C) Its shape is durable (D) Its texture cannot be classified 29. The word "they" in line 23 refers to (A) categories (B) sieves (C) larger particles (D) clay particles 30. It can be inferred from the passage that the sediment sieve has an advantage over the hand test in determining soil texture because (A) using the sieve takes less time (B) the sieve can measure clay (C) less training is required to use the sieve (D) the sieve allows for a more exact measure 31. During the procedure described in paragraph 3, when clay particles are placed into water they (A) stick to the sides of the water container (B) take some time to sink to the bottom (C) separate into different sizes (D) dissolve quickly 32. The word "fine" in line 24 is closest in meaning to (A) tiny (B) many (C) excellent (D) various 33. All of the following words are defined in the passage EXCEPT (A) texture (line 3) (B) ribbon (line 11) (C) sediment sieves (line 19) (D) evaporated (line 27) Questions 34-43 A number of factors related to the voice reveal the personality of the speaker. The first is the broad area of communication, which includes imparting information by use of language, communicating with a group or an individual and specialized line communication through performance. A person conveys thoughts and ideas through choice of words, by a tone of voice that is pleasant or unpleasant, gentle or harsh, by the rhythm that is inherent within the language itself, and by speech rhythms that are flowing and regular or uneven and hesitant, and finally, by the pitch and melody of the utterance. When speaking before a group, a person's tone may indicate unsureness or fright, confidence or calm. At interpersonal levels, the tone may reflect ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen, or may belie them. Here the conversant's tone can consciously or unconsciously reflect intuitive sympathy or antipathy, lack of concern or interest, fatigue, anxiety, enthusiasm or excitement, all of which are .usually discernible by the acute listener. Public performance is a manner of communication that is highly specialized with its own techniques for obtaining effects by voice and /or gesture. The motivation derived from the text, and in the case of singing, the music, in combination with the performer's skills, personality, and ability to create empathy will determine the success of artistic, political, or pedagogic communication. Second, the voice gives psychological clues to a person's self-image, perception of others, and emotional health. Self-- 配套讲稿:
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